From The Atlantic:
“That growing minority presence allowed Obama to win reelection comfortably in 2012 even though Mitt Romney carried a higher share of white voters than Reagan did in his 1980 landslide.”
Share of popular vote (including non-White) won by Reagan 1980: 50.7%
And that’s with a Liberal Republican splitting the GOP vote.
Share of popular vote (including non-White won by Rmoney 2012: 47.2%
Honestly, that doesn’t look half-bad, given that Romney was a polarizing unprincipled elitist Massachusetts Mormon Obamacare-inspiring rich kid who appealed to exactly no one other than severe Obama-haters, of whom there were far fewer than Bush-lovers back in ’04.
Could Obama’s appeal to non-Whites have just a little something to do with him being the First Black President? Couldn’t that have just a wee bit something to do with boosting Black turnout? Instead of this extremely relevant issue, everybody keeps looking at Mexicans. Sorry. They haven’t decided anything so far when it comes to building the Emerging Democratic Majority.
We’ll see if Blacks turn out in droves for the promise of the First Lady President this November. Somehow, I doubt Black turnout will be as high as in 2012.
I’ve already looked at the electoral vote here, and there’s absolutely no evidence from there winning more of the Hispanic vote will win the GOP anything more than jack shit when it comes to Presidential elections. So far, the Hispanic vote has not decided a single Presidential election in the United States in favor of the Democrat, other than possibly 1960 (which could have been altered by so little as the flap of a butterfly wing, given the unusual number of close states). The Black vote decided the elections of 1868, 1876, 1960, 1976, and 2012. And I might be forgetting some.